9) WHY does the Roman Catholic Church require people to call a religious man “Father” when Jesus commanded us to call NO RELIGIOUS MAN “FATHER!”Note again how the author says something in the text says that the text doesn't actually say. The text says, call no man father, but the author would have us believe that the text says call no RELIGIOUS man father. That's not what the text says does it?
What the author is trying to do is avoid the problem of calling earthly men who were responsible for our conception father. His sleight of hand is not so easily accepted by the careful reader.
But again the author has a serious problem for if this is really a commandment of Jesus, then Jesus must have been a sinner or confused by his own teaching because:
Mt 3:9 - Jesus calls Abraham "father"
Also...
Acts 7:2 - Stephen the first martyr calls the Jewish leaders fathers. Apparently the author would have us believe that Stephen's last act before he gave his own life in witness for Christ was to disobey Christ by calling these men fathers?
Rom 4:26-27 - Paul calls Abraham the father of us all
1 Cor 4:14-15 - Paul refers to himself that he became their father through the Gospel
1 Jn 2:13, 14 - John writes...I write to you , fathers, because you know him
A few more examples, not necessarily as explicit:
1 Tim 1:2
Tit 1:4
Heb 12:7-9
Lk 14:26
1 Thes 2:11
Philem 10
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